I think it is clear that we have laws on the books that were written when there was a reasonable expectation that children would follow from marriage. In a nutshell what I'm saying is that those laws should be stricken. The politically incorrect claim I'm making is that the "marriage laws" on the books were made with that presumption, which, I claim, was valid at one point and is no longer valid as a consequence of the full recognition of same-sex marriage being equivalent to heterosexual marriage.
Moreover, to the consternation of apparently almost everyone, I'm saying that the beneficial laws with regard to marriage that were drafted when there was a reasonable expectation that children would follow from marriage should not be applied to same-sex marriages because there is no expectation that their marriages will result in the birth of children.
Honestly, from my POV, I cannot understand why taking such a position would be controversial.