I've seen rightwingers claim that if California both counted the absentee ballots and disallowed votes by non-citizens, Bush would have won there -- whereupon Florida would be irrelevant, eh? I don't know. It seems far fetched; but I've never seen anything resembling an analysis.
No, it's all Florida, and it's all one way; miscellaneous variants on "Aha! I found a way to count the votes so Gore won!"
Grin...don't those two statements contradict each other?
Sidenote: no voting irregularities have been prosecuted either inside or outside of Florida that I am aware of. (Several were reported.) I fully expect voting irregularities across statelines (ie: people who live both in NY and FL - and who voted twice) are not being tracked/prosecuted.